Q1. Which of the following factors limit the sovereignty of Indian Parliament:
1) Written Nature of the Constitution
2) Federal System of Government
3) System of Judicial Review
4) Fundamental Rights
5) Fundamental Duties
Answer Option: (1, 2, 3, 4)
1. The factors that limit the sovereignty of Indian Parliament are: i. Written Nature of the Constitution: Parliament has to operate within the limits prescribed by the Constitution. ii. Federal System of Government: The law-making authority of the Parliament gets confined to the subjects enumerated in the Union List and Concurrent List and does not extend to the subjects enumerated in the State List (except in five abnormal circumstances and that too for a short period). iii. System of Judicial Review: The adoption of an independent Judiciary with the power of judicial review also restricts the supremacy of our Parliament. iv. Fundamental Rights: The authority of the Parliament is also restricted by the incorporation of a code of justiciable fundamental rights under Part III of the Constitution. Fundamental duties does not limit the sovereignty of Indian Parliament.
Q2. Consider the following statements regarding Parliamentary Privileges:
1) The Constitution provides Parliamentary privileges to the members of both the houses of parliament and not their committees.
2) The Constitution has also extended the parliamentary privileges to those persons who are entitled to speak in the proceedings of a House of Parliament.
3) The parliamentary privileges do not extend to the president of India.
Answer Option: (2, 3)
1. Parliamentary privileges are special rights, immunities and exemptions enjoyed by the two Houses of Parliament, their committees and their members. o The Constitution has also extended the parliamentary privileges to those persons who are entitled to speak and take part in the proceedings of a House of Parliament or any of its committees. o These include the attorney general of India and Union ministers. o The parliamentary privileges do not extend to the president who is also an integral part of the Parliament.
Q3. The act created for the first time, a Government of India having authority over the entire territorial area possessed by the British in India
A. Charter Act of 1833
B. Act of 1891
C. Act of 1909
D. Government of India Act 1935
Answer Option: A
1. Charter Act of 1833 was the final step towards centralisation in British India. o It made the Governor-General of Bengal as the Governor-General of India and vested in him all civil and military powers. o It deprived the governor of Bombay and Madras of their legislative powers. o It ended the activities of the East India Company as a commercial body, which became a purely administrative body. o It provided that the company’s territories in India were held by it ‘in trust for His Majesty, His heirs and successors’.
Q4. The “Sovereignty” of India means:
1) No external power can dictate to the government of India.
2) Citizens cannot be discriminated against on any grounds
3) There is freedom of speech and expression for Indian citizens.
Answer Option: A
1. Sovereignty simply implies that India is a state that takes its own decisions ultimately guided by the people. o No external agency dictates terms to India. o However, the notion of sovereignty does not seep into the framework of all democratic rights. o For e.g. a sovereign state might very well discriminate between its citizens. o Same applies for freedom of speech and expression. o A sovereign state may very well restrict freedom of speech, as it is not an absolute right, even though it is vital to a democracy.
Q5. Which of the following statement is not correct:
A. Fundamental Rights are not sacrosanct
B. Fundamental Rights promote the ideal of political democracy
C. The six rights guaranteed by Article 19 can be suspended when the emergency is declared on the grounds of external aggression and armed rebellion
D. Laws made to enforce fundamental rights can be made only by the parliament and not by state legislatures
The six rights guaranteed by Article 19 can be suspended only when emergency is declared on the grounds of war or external aggression (i.e., external emergency) and not on the ground of armed rebellion (i.e., internal emergency)
Q6. For which of the following Committees, the Chairman is invariably from the Ruling Party:
A. Estimates Committee
B. Public Accounts Committee
C. Committee on Public Undertakings
Answer Option: A
1. Estimates Committee consists of 30 members of Lok Sabha. o Its chairman is invariably from the ruling party. o The Committee acts as a deterrent on extravagance of the government on public expenditure and makes detailed examination of annual budget estimates.
Q7. The Lieutenant Governor of a Union Territory is empowered to promulgate ordinances only:
1) When the assembly is dissolved
2) With the prior permission of the President
Answer Option: B
1. Such an ordinance has the same force as an act of the assembly. o Every such ordinance must be approved by the assembly within six weeks from its reassembly. He can also withdraw an ordinance at any time. o But, he cannot promulgate an ordinance when the assembly is dissolved or suspended. o Further, no such ordinance can be promulgated or withdrawn without the prior permission of the President.
Q8. Consider the following statements regarding office of the Attorney General (AG):
1) He must be a person who is qualified to be appointed a judge of the Supreme Court
2) He works under the Ministry of Law and Justice reporting to the Union Law Minister.
3) The term of office of the AG is fixed by the Constitution.
Answer Option A
1. He must be a citizen of India and he must have been a judge of some high court for five years or an advocate of some high court for ten years or an eminent jurist, in the opinion of the president. o He is an independent constitutional authority. o The term of office of the AG is not fixed by the Constitution. o Further, the Constitution does not contain the procedure and grounds for his removal. o He holds office during the pleasure of the president. o This means that he may be removed by the president at any time.
Q9. Consider the following statements regarding One Nation, One Ration Card (ONORC) system:
1) The ONORC scheme is aimed at enabling migrant workers and their family members to buy subsidised ration from any fair price shop anywhere in the country under the National Food Security Act, 2013.
2) ONORC is based on technology that involves details of beneficiaries’ ration card, Aadhaar number, and electronic Points of Sale (ePoS).
3) Till date, less than half of states and Union Territories have joined the ONORC.
Answer Option: (1, 2)
1. The Supreme Court directed all states and Union Territories to implement the One Nation, One Ration Card (ONORC) system, which allows for inter- and intra-state portability, by July 31. o The ONORC scheme is aimed at enabling migrant workers and their family members to buy subsidised ration from any fair price shop anywhere in the country under the National Food Security Act, 2013. o ONORC is based on technology that involves details of beneficiaries’ ration card, Aadhaar number, and electronic Points of Sale (ePoS). o The system identifies a beneficiary through biometric authentication on ePoS devices at fair price shops. o The system runs with the support of two portals —Integrated Management of Public Distribution System (IM-PDS) (impds.nic.in) and Annavitran (annavitran.nic.in), which host all the relevant data. o Till date, 32 states and Union Territories have joined the ONORC, covering about 69 crore NFSA beneficiaries. o Four states are yet to join the scheme — Assam, Chhattisgarh, Delhi and West Bengal.
Q10. In its present form, Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act contains which of the following:
1) Punishment for terrorist acts and activities.
2) Punishment for acts threatening India’s security, including its economic security
3) Provisions to prevent the use of funds for terrorist purposes, including money laundering.
Answer Option: All
1. In its present form, the Act, after the amendments in 2004 and 2013, covers the declaration of associations as unlawful, punishment for terrorist acts and activities, acts threatening the country’s security, including its economic security (a term that covers fiscal and monetary security, food, livelihood, energy ecological and environmental security), and provisions to prevent the use of funds for terrorist purposes, including money laundering. o Under Section 43D (5) of the Act, bail cannot be granted to a suspect if the court is of the opinion that there are reasonable grounds to believe that the charges are prima facie true.